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65 questions every Jehovah's Witness should be asked using the
65 questions every Jehovah's Witness should be asked using the
I copied this list with permission from the web site
Questions for Jehovah's
Witnesses. Most of the questions on this list are great, and you
should be able to find several that you can use. If you are sharing the Gospel
of Jesus Christ with a Jehovah's Witness through their home Bible study method,
try to find questions that fit the subject you are studying and bring them up at
the appropriate time in a non-challenging way.
These questions have been put together using
information from many different sources. All verses are from the NWT so that the
translation of these verses cannot be questioned by Jehovah's Witnesses. If the
Watchtower Society decides to change any of these verses (like they did with Heb
1:6), then the obvious question for the individual Jehovah's Witness is why did
the WTS change their own Bible."...keep testing whether you are in the faith"
- The WTS claims it uses the Bible as it's "supreme
authority". Where in the Bible does anyone count their time in preaching on a
slip of paper and are assigned record cards of activity, determining this as a
"gauge to their spirituality"? Where in the Bible are Pioneers, Auxiliary
Pioneers, District Overseers, Circuit Overseers, Bethelites, and Kingdom
- To what was Jesus referring to by the term "this temple" in Jn 2:18-19? In Jn 2:21 John clearly states that when Jesus used the term "this
temple", he was referring to his body. If what the WTS teaches about Jesus'
body after his death is correct, then how do you explain these verses?
- If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal "active force", why
does he speak directly and refer to himself as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2?
- Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that"... All [other]
things have been created through him and FOR HIM". If Jesus were Michael the
Archangel at the time of creation, would an angel have created all things for
himself? Isa 43:7 says God created "everyone ... for my OWN glory ..."
- The WTS claims that Ezekial's prophecy of the Jews
returning to their land is fulfilled in their organization. Ezek 36:24, 28
says "and I will take you out of the nations and collect you together out of
all the lands and bring you in upon your own soil" and "You will certainly
dwell in the land that I gave to your forefathers, and you must become my
people and I myself shall become your God." If this is fulfilled in the
Watchtower organization, then how are they returning to the land of CANAAN as
promised to the forefathers? Ps 105:8-11
- Consider also what is said concerning those who fulfill
this prophecy. Ezek 36:22 says, "Therefore, say to the house of Israel, this
is what the sovereign Lord Jehovah has said: 'not for your sakes I am doing
[it] 0 house of Israel but for my holy name, which you have PROFANED among the
nations where you have come in." Since the WTS claims that it is spiritual
Israel and fulfils these prophecies in Ezekial, how do Jehovah's Witnesses
believe they have profaned God's name among the nations?
- Since the WTS prohibits the use of blood transfusions, why
does it permit the infusion of albumin, clotting factors, and gamma globulins,
all of which are derived from human blood? Since Acts 15:29 clearly refers to
the old Jewish law of not EATING blood (Gen 9:4, Lev 3:17, Deut 12:16), and
since the WTS has changed its teachings so many times on major issues like
organ transplantation, the definition of "generation", the year of Armageddon,
etc, etc, and simply calls these changes "New Light", how can you be sure they
won't some day change their teachings on blood transfusions and refer to the
change as "New Light" also?
- Does Prov 4:18 really justify an organization replacing
doctrines and failed prophecies with new doctrines and prophecies, or does it
simply contrast the benefit to the "righteous" of obeying a wise father (Prov
4:10-19)? False teachings can be called "false words" and Prov 13:5 says, "A
false word is what the righteous hates..." When the WTS changes a teaching to
something that is totally different, is it like a light that is getting
brighter and brighter or more like having one false light (word) completely
turned off and a totally different light turned on? Do you think the WTS would
be critical of any other organization that changed its teachings as many times
on as many different issues over the last 100 years as the WTS has?
- Regarding Jesus' return to earth, Jehovah's Witnesses
believe that it occurred in l914 as an invisible return. That event is
described in Zechariah 14:4, which states, "... and his feet will actually
stand in that day upon the mountain of the olive trees which is in front of
Jerusalem on the east." If Jesus has no body and if his return was invisible,
how do you explain this verse?
- Paul said, "... for as often as you eat this loaf and drink
this cup, you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, until he arrives." (1Cor
11:26). If Christ arrived in 1914, why do Jehovah's Witnesses continue to
partake of the bread and wine? Shouldn't they have stopped in 1914?
- Since the WTS claims "apostolic succession", can it trace
its roots all the way back to Christ (Mt 16:18)? If so, who was it that
"passed the torch of God's spirit" to C. T. Russell when he founded the
organization? What was the name of this individual or individuals?
- The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH
God, and the word was a god." How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god' if God says
in Deut 32:39, "See now that I -- I am he, and there are NO gods together with
- The WTS teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken
literally. If chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then
does the Bible say that the 144,000 will come from? See Rev 7: 5-8.
- Since the WTS currently rejects most of the teachings of
its founder, Charles Taze Russell (who was president of the organization from
1879-1916), and since they also reject "judge" Joseph Franklin Rutherford, who
succeeded Russell as president from 1916-1942, how can you be sure that in 25
more years, the WTS won't reject the current president, Milton Henschel
(1992-present), as they did Russell and Rutherford? What kind of confidence
can you have in an organization that rejected its founder and first two
presidents for the first 63 years of its existence - over 50% of the time they
- If there is no conscious awareness after death, how could
the "spirits in prison", who lived during the time of Noah, be preached to by
Christ after His death (I Pet 3:18-20) and how could the good news be
"declared even unto the dead" (I Pet 4:5-6)?
- Since the WTS has received "new light" regarding the 1914
generation, and completely changed their views on this, does this mean that
all the former Witnesses who were disfellowshipped years ago for the same view
the organization is now teaching will automatically be accepted back into
fellowship again? Were these ex-Witnesses in fact disfellowshipped for what is
now taught as "the Truth"?
- If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a
heavenly hope, and a great crowd of people who have another hope of
everlasting life on paradise earth, why does Paul say that there is only ONE
hope (Eph 4:4), instead of two?
- On pgs. 66, 69, 211, 423, 560, 648, and 719 of Jehovah's
Witnesses--Proclaimers of God's Kingdom, reference is made to The
Finished Mystery, which was the 7th of the Studies in the Scriptures
series published by the WTS in 1917 (pg 66, 719), and was the major
publication of the WTS at that time. On pgs. 88, 648, and 651, a picture of
this book appears, complete with the winged disk symbol of the Egyptian sun
god Ra on its front cover. Is it true that The Finished Mystery taught
that Christ was the Almighty of Rev 1:8 (pg 15), that Christ established a
"Church" (pg 17), that Christ returned invisibly in 1874 (pg 54, 60, 68). that
the Holy Spirit has a personality (pg 57), that the great pyramid of Giza was
God's stone witness and was used to predict the year of Armageddon (pg 60),
that Armageddon would definitely occur in the spring of 1918 (pg 62), that
Christ was crucified (pg 68), that Leviathan of the Bible refers to the steam
locomotive (pg 85), and that Michael is the Pope of Rome and the angels are
his bishops (pg 188)? According to "current" WTS teachings, Christ returned
invisibly in 1914 and in 1918 chose the WTS as his earthly organization
because they were the only ones teaching "the Truth". If this was so, then
Jesus would have known the teachings of the WTS as put forth in The
Finished Mystery, published in 1917. Do you really think that Jesus would
have chosen an organization which taught so many things that were not correct
according to "current" WTS teachings and are no longer taught as "the truth"?
- In Jn 20:28, John refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios
moy kai ho theos moy". This translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE
God of me". Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this
realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn't
Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous
- If Christ will not have a visible return to earth, then how
will he be seen by "ALL the tribes of the earth" (Mt 24:30), and by "EVERY
eye" (Rev 1:7) when he returns? How can Christ "APPEAR" a second time (Heb
9:28) if he will not have a visible return to earth?
- In Rev 19:1, where does it say that the great crowd will
- If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, how
could he: Be referred to as "he" and "him" in Jn 16:7- 8 and Jn 16:13-14; Bear
witness (Jn 15:26); Feel hurt (Isa 63:10); Be blasphemed against (Mk 3:29);
Say things (Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12, and Heb 10:15-17): Desire (Gal
5:17); Be outraged (Heb 10:29); Search (I Cor 2:10); Comfort (Acts 9:31); Be
loved (Rom 15:30); Be lied to and be God (Acts 5:3-4)?
- What is the correct spelling of God's proper name, "Yahweh"
or "Jehovah"? If Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that "Yahweh" is more proper,
why do they misspell it "Jehovah"? If the name of God is so important, then
should you not only pronounce it correctly, but spell it correctly too?
- Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "all things", but in Isa
44:24, God says that he "by myself created the heavens and the earth" and asks
the question "Who was with me?" when the heavens and the earth were created.
How can this be since if Jesus had been created by God, then he would have
been with God when everything else was created?
- If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction
between the body and the soul in Mt 10:28?
- In Col 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word "other" 4 times
even though it is not in the original Greek (See Gr- Engl Interlinear). Why is
the word "other" inserted? How would these verses read if the word "other" had
not been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible?
See Prov 30:5-6.
- In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "other" even though
it doesn't appear in the original Greek (See Gr-Engl Interlinear). What is the
reason for inserting this word? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Exo 6:3, Ps
83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse read if the word "other" had not been
inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov
30:5-6. If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did
Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake of
his (Jesus') name, instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12,17, Jn
15:21, and Acts 9:16)? If the name "Jehovah" is so important, then why does
Acts 4:12 say, "There is salvation in no one else; for there is not another
name [vs 10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that has been given among men, by which
we must get saved"? If the teachings of the WTS are correct, would this not
have been the logical place for God to have used the name "YHWH" or "Jehovah"?
Since the word "Jehovah" didn't appear until at least the 12th century, and
since the term "Jehovah's Witnesses" wasn't used by the WTS until the early
1930's, doesn't this mean that the first century Christians were not known as
- The WTS makes the claim, "Like the Primitive Christian
Community - the religious publication 'Interpretation' stated in July 1956:
'In their organization and witnessing work, they [Jehovah's Witnesses] come as
close as any group to approximating the primitive Christian community..."-
Jehovah's Witnesses- Proclaimers of God's Kingdom, pg 234, and on pg 677
of the same book, a caption appears titled "Like the early Christians". Do
Jehovah's Witnesses pray the "Our Father" (Mt 6:9-13), break bread together
(celebrate the Eucharist) frequently (1Cor 10:16-17, 1Cor 11:26-27), come
together on Sunday to break bread (Acts 20:7), confirm the Holy Spirit by the
laying on of hands (Acts 8:15-17, 19:5-6, Heb 6:2, 2Tim 1:6), ordain (appoint)
priests (elders) through the laying on of hands (Acts 6:5-6, 13:2-3), pray to
Jesus (Mt 11:28, Acts 7:59-60, 1Cor 16:22-23, Rev 22:20), anoint the sick with
oil (Mk 6:12-13, Jas 5:14), often kneel down to pray (Acts 9:40, 20:36, 21:5,
Lk 22:41), consider themselves to be witnesses of Christ (Acts 1:8, 10:39,
13:31), have deacons (1Tim 3:8, 10, 12), fast from than Jesus Christ (Acts
4:10-12), celebrate Pentecost (Acts 2:1, 20:16, 1Cor 16:8), have special
people that look after widows and orphans (Acts 6:1-4, Jas 1:27),
occaisionally drink wine (1Tim 5:23)? If not, then how can Jehovah's Witnesses
consider themselves to be like the primitive Christian community?
- In Rev 14:13, how can the dead be "happy" and find "rest",
if there is no conscious awareness after death?
- Is it true that the WTS's prophecy that Armageddon will
come before "the end of the generation of 1914" (You Can Live Forever In
Paradise On Earth, pg 154), is no longer taught as "the Truth"? If so,
then does this mean that this teaching of the WTS, which they have taught as
"the Truth" for decades, was really a false teaching? Since the WTS claims
that they are the "one channel that the Lord is using during the last days of
this system of things" (Jehovah's Witnesses-Proclaimers of God's Kingdom,
pg 626) and that the governing body is "the mouthpiece of Jehovah God", does
this mean that God changed His mind about this teaching and the definition of
"generation"? Is it possible that God could change His mind? Has the WTS ever
changed their mind before about a teaching that they once taught as "the
Truth"? The WTS has taught that Armageddon was going to occur in: 1914 -
The Time Is At Hand, 1888 (1911 ed.), pg 101;
Zion 's Watchtower, 1/15/1892, pg22
1918 - The Finished Mystery, 1917, pg 62, 485
Millions Now Living Will Never Die, 1920, pg 89-90, Watchtower,
7/15/24, pg 211
WWII - Watchtower, 9/15/41, pg 288
1975 - Kingdom Ministry, 6/69, pg 3; AWAKE!, 10/8/68, etc.
Before the end of the generation of 1914 -
You Can Live Forever In Paradise
On Earth, pg 154; A WAKE} 10/8/95, pg 4
Since the WTS claimed that their teaching that Armageddon would come before
"the end of the generation of 1914" was "Jehovah's prophetic word" (WT,
5/15/84, pg 6) and "the Creator's promise" (AWAKE! 10/8/95. 9/22/95, 9/8/95,
etc. pg 4), therefore speaking "in the name of God" (Deut 18:22), then
according to Deut 18:20- 22, doesn't this mean that the WTS is truly a modern
day false prophet? See Mt 7:15, 24:11, Mk 13:22, 2Pet 2:1, 1Jn 4:1, Rev
- If the name Jehovah is so important, then why is it never
used in the entire Greek New Testament? If men edited out the proper name of
God, "YHWH", when they copied the New Testament, as only the WTS claims,
thereby altering God's word, then how can we have confidence in ANY of the New
Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or the WTS as unreliable?
- If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands
together over his head, as only the WTS teaches, why does Jn 20:25 say "...
unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS...", indicating that there
was more than one nail used for his hands? Two nails would have been used if
he was crucified on a cross.
- Can Jehovah's Witnesses hold and discuss openly with other
Witnesses opinions that differ from orthodox WTS teachings? If no, why not?
- The NWT translates the Greek word "esti" as "is" in almost
every instance in the New Testament (Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc).
See Greek-English Interlinear. Why does the NWT translate the same Greek word
as "means" in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19? Why the inconsistency in
the translation of the word "esti"? If the NWT were consistent and translated
the Greek word "esti" as "is" in these verses, what would these verses say?
Why did so many of Jesus' disciples leave him when he told them they must eat
his body in order to have eternal life? See Jn 6:25-69, Mt 26:26-28.
- Rev 20:10 says, "And the Devil... the wild beast and the
false prophet [already were]; and they will be tormented day and night forever
and ever". Where will the Devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet be
"tormented day and night forever and ever"? Likewise, Rev 14:9-11 says, "...
If anyone worship the wild beast... he shall be tormented with fire and
sulphur... And the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever..." Where
could "anyone" be "tormented... forever and ever"?
- Jesus Christ is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 9:6
("For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us...
And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God..."). Jehovah is
referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 10:20-21. How can this be if there is only
- If the WTS claims they are not "inspired" but does refer to
themselves as "God's spirit-directed Prophet", what is the difference? Is
there such a thing as an "uninspired prophet"? Why would anyone be part of a
religious organization which claimed that their teachings were NOT inspired?
- In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo"
is used in reference to God, it is translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11,
11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to
Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9,28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb
1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl
Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word "prosekunhsan" used with
reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and used with reference to
Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this
inconsistency? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as
"worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ read?
- The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk
2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, lThess5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8,
etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear in the
Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as
"Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1. and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-
- The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi"
as "I am" every time it appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.),
except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been". What is the reason
for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi" was translated in Jn
8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse in which it appears,
how would Jn 8:58 read? See Exo 3:14.
- In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is "coming
quickly", says of himself," I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the
last, the beginning and the end". In Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who "became
dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever", refers to himself as the first
and the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the
Omega, the beginning and the end .,.". God is also referred to as the "first"
and the "last" in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be since by definition
of these words there can only be one first and one last?
- Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you,..." over 50
times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every
time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why
is the comma placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? If the
translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation of
this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears (see concordance), and
the comma was placed after the word "you", how would it read?
- Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All things came into
existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into
existence". How could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into
existence through him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3,
Jesus would have had to create himself.
- If the great crowd is to have everlasting life on paradise
EARTH, why does IThess 4:17 say, "...we the living who are surviving will,
together with them, be caught away in clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and
thus we shall always be with the Lord"?
- If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's
name, why did Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted
for the sake of his (Jesus') name instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk
21:12, 17, Jn 15:2 and Acts 9:16)?
- In Mt 1:23, who is Matthew referring to here that has been
given the name which means "With Us Is God"?
- The Bible says that ONLY God is our savior (Hos 13:4, Isa
43:11,45:21, etc.). How can it be then, that the Bible repeatedly says that
Jesus Christ is our savior (Lk 2:11, Phil 3:20. Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet 1:1, 2:20,
- Referring to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no conscious
awareness after death, how could Sheol "... become agitated at you in order to
meet you on coming in..." (v.9), how could the souls in Sheol "... speak up
and say to you..." (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol when "...seeing you
will gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you, [saying,]
This this the man'..." (v. 16-17), and how would you be aware that this was
- Heb 3:1 refers to "holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly
calling". In Mk 3:35, Jesus says, "Whoever does the will of God, this one is
my brother..." Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does the will of God
is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling. How can this be
if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven?
- Heb 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of
the Old Testament (Abel, Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they are reaching
out for a better [place], that is, one belonging to heaven..." and,"... their
God for he has made a city ready for them." The footnote on the word "city"
refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22 and Rev 21:2. How can this be since
according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only people who will
go to heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from people
who lived after Christ died?
- In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus showed his
disciples the wounds in his body as proof of his resurrection. If Jesus' body
had been destroyed by God after he died, how could Jesus show the disciples
his body which had the wounds in his hands, feet, and side and claim that he
is not just a spirit, "because a spirit does not have flesh and bones just as
you behold that I have" (Lk 24:39)?
- If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov
8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then before Jesus would have been created, God would have
had to have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever
been without wisdom?
- Rev 7:11 says that "before the throne" is in heaven where
"all the angels were standing". Rev 14:2-3 says "And I heard a sound out of
heaven ... And they were singing as if a new song before the throne ...". Rev
7:9 says,"... look, a great crowd ... standing before the throne...". Rev
7:14-15 says, "...There are the ones that come out of the great tribulation
... That is why they are before the throne of God ..." Therefore, if "before
the throne " means in heaven (Rev 7:11, 14:2-3), and the "great crowd" is
"before the throne" (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15), where does that mean that the great
crowd will be?
- In Lk 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be "all
living to him (God)", since they all died hundreds of years before Jesus said
- If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the "souls"
of Rev 6:9- 11, who were of those who had been "slaughtered" (i.e., killed),
cry out "with a loud voice, saying: 'Until when Sovereign Lord ..."?
- In Mt 28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to baptize "people
of all the nations ...in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy
spirit". Why would the disciples be instructed to baptize in the name of
anybody or anything who was not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses follow the command
of Jesus and baptize "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy
- If the human soul IS the person, how could the soul go out
of a person (Gen 35:18) or come back into a person (1 Kings 17:21)?
- The Watchtower Society teaches that the earth will never be
destroyed or depopulated. How can it be, then, that God says in Isa 51:6,"...
the earth itself will wear out, and its inhabitants will die like a mere
gnat...", and that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, "Heaven and earth will pass
away...", and that John says in Rev 21:1 that he saw"... a new heaven and a
NEW earth, for the former heaven and the FORMER earth had passed away, and the
sea is NO MORE."?
- Referring to Lk 12:4-5, what would be left of a person
after they were killed that could be thrown into Gehenna?
- Who or what does the spirit of Christ (Phil 1:19, Gal 4:6,
Rom 8:9) refer to? In Gal 4:6, how is it possible that the spirit of Christ
could come into our hearts? How is it possible that the spirit of CHRIST could
reside in someone? If what the Watchtower Society teaches is true, how could
Paul make this statement if Christ was a spirit person residing in heaven?
- In Jn 8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your father rejoiced
greatly in the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced". Since
Abraham died hundreds of years before Jesus said this, how could Jesus say
that Abraham "saw it and rejoiced", if there is no conscious awareness after
- In Jn 6:51, Jesus says that a person must eat "of this
bread" in order to "live forever", and that "the bread that I give IS my
flesh". In Jn 6:63, Jesus says "... Unless you eat the flesh of the son of man
and drink his blood, you have no life in yourselves." In Jn 6:54-55, Jesus
says, "He that feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has everlasting life..."
and "... for my flesh is true food and my blood is true drink." Do you partake
of the flesh of Christ, as Jesus commanded, in order to have life in yourself
and in order to live forever?
- In Acts 17:31 Paul says, "Because he has set a day in which
he purposes to judge the inhabited earth in righteousness by a MAN whom he has
appointed, and he has furnished a guarantee to all men in that he has
resurrected him from the dead". Did Paul believe that the future judge of the
world, Jesus Christ, would be an immortal MAN or an invisible spirit creature?
- The WTS teaches that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob will not
reside with Christ in his heavenly kingdom. How then do you explain Mt 8:11 in
which Jesus says," But I tell you that many from eastern parts and western
parts will come and recline at the table with Abraham and Isaac and Jacob in
the kingdom of the heavens"?
- Every true Christian would agree that we should follow the
commands of God. In Mk 9:7, God the Father commands us to listen to Jesus. Do
you follow this command and listen to Jesus? After all, Jesus died for your
personal sins (1Jn 2:2, 1Pet 2:24). Jesus tells us to go directly to him (Mt
11:28-30), and the Father commanded us to listen to Jesus. Why? Because JESUS
gives us everlasting life (Jn 10:28), and so that JESUS will enter our house
and be with us and give us the right to sit on his throne (Rev 3:20- 21). Do
you pray to Jesus as Paul and the early Christians did (1Cor 1:2)? Do you
partake of the flesh of Christ as Jesus commanded (Jn 6:51)? If not, then are
you following the command of the Father who said "Listen to him"?
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